Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

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Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

Postby almuallim » Mon Jul 14, 2008 12:23 pm

Assalamu alaykum,

I have always struggled to understand how weak verbs should be formed and whether there is any rule. As an example: take قال , when it is in the jussive , it becomes لم يقل and not لم يقول , so why is this, is it a rule, or just the way it is?

Another example, such as نهى, how can one tell what the third person plural imperfect tense is, is it يَنْهَوا or يَنْهُوا or even يُنهوا ?

Are there any particular rules that should be followed?
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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

Postby Ehab » Mon Jul 14, 2008 11:55 pm

Wa 3alaykom assalaam almuallim;
So this time is advanced staff :) .. The verb قال is called أجوف which means the middle letter is حرف علّة (vowel), so when you negate this type of word (أجوف) you cancel حرف العلة therefore, the right one is لم يقل. Another example to make sure you’ve understood it, the verb خاف, the negation is لم يخف, again we took off the vowel.
Regarding to نهى, this is even more advanced, but the rule behind it is really simple, I remember studying it looong time ago. When I was young ;)
In this type of verbs, the root has حرف علّة in the end, take the present tense of the verb (like نهى - ينهى), and see what is the last letter, if it is alef maqsoorah (ى) which is the case here, then put fat7a (َ ) before the end, so the right one is (يَنهَوا). Now let’s take the other case where the last letter of the present tense is (و), like (نمى - ينمو), here use 9’ammah (ُ ) so it becomes (يَنمُوا).
Hope that is clear enough.
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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

Postby almuallim » Tue Jul 15, 2008 11:36 pm

Ah, very nice explanation Brother, very nice.

I remember when i first started learning arabic, we did a lot of grammar rules, which, at the time bored me to be honest, but now some of the things are slowly coming back, alhamdulillah.

I think i went a bit ahead of myself there a bit. Another question. Take رمى (to throw); now the imperfect tense equivalent is يرمي , my question is how do i know whether the plural of this is يرمُون or يرمَون ?

Also, what is the imperfect masculine dual of نمى is it ينموان ? That doesn't 'sound' right to me...
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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

Postby Ehab » Wed Jul 16, 2008 12:30 pm

يرمي is a present tense that ends with (ي) .. simply, it takes ضمة, so the right one is يرمُون
So, to summarise it, if the last letter of the present tense is ALEF MAQ9OORAH (ى) , then use fat7a before the end. If the last letter was YA2 (ي) or WAW (و) then use 9’ammah.
By the way, ينموان sounds right to me ;) .. same as يرميان or ينجوان
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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

Postby almuallim » Wed Jul 16, 2008 1:51 pm

It sounds right to me now too, shukran he he he
I understand it now, seems so simple now after you explained it!

JazakAllah Khayral Jazaa

أحاول ألآن أن أشكرك باللغة العربية . لا أزال أتعلم فربما تجد الأخطاء في كتابتي و لكن أقول بأنني ممتن لك لأنك أجبت علي بالتفاصيل الكاملة. شكرا يا أستاذ الكريم

عندي أسئلة كثيرة و إن شاء الله أسجل على موقعك قريبا و أشترك في واحدة من خطط اشتراكك.
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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

Postby almuallim » Wed Jul 16, 2008 4:16 pm

Another question,

If حرف علة is at end of a فعل ماضي like رمى or نمى or سعى then is there a rule to say what it will be in the مضارع ? We know from experience that رمى goes to يرمِي and نمى goes to ينمُو and سعى goes to يسعَو but is there a rule that will tell me? The same applies for every weak verb i think, how would i know قال goes to يقول and not يقال (like يخاف) for example?
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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

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Re: Conjugating weak verbs: is there a rule?

Postby blackrose » Sat Oct 05, 2013 1:13 pm

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